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ccna 1 exploration 4.0 chapter 5 exam answer

1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
  • destination network address
  • source network address
  • source MAC address
  • well known port destination address
02. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
  • source and destination MAC
  • source and destination application protocol
  • source and destination port number
  • source and destination IP address
03. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
  • The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
  • The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
  • The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
  • The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.
04. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
  • type-of-service
  • identification
  • flags
  • time-to-live
  • header checksum
05. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
  • host portion
  • broadcast address
  • network portion
  • gateway address
06.

Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
  • 192.135.250.1
  • 192.31.7.1
  • 192.133.219.0
  • 192.133.219.1
07. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
  • The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
  • The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
  • The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
  • There is no impact on communications.
08. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
  • physically connects a computer to a network
  • provides a permanent address to a computer
  • identifies the network to which a computer is connected
  • identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
  • identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
09. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
  • dynamic
  • interior
  • static
  • standard
10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
  • The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
  • The router discards the packet.
  • The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
  • The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
  • The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
  • gateways
  • purpose
  • physical addressing
  • software version
  • geographic location
  • ownership
12. What is a component of a routing table entry?
  • the MAC address of the interface of the router
  • the destination Layer 4 port number
  • the destination host address
  • the next-hop address
13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
  • router
  • hub
  • switch
  • firewall
  • access point
  • bridge
14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
  • too few broadcasts
  • performance degradation
  • security issues
  • limited management responsibility
  • host identification
  • protocol compatibility
15.

Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
  • 7
  • 8
  • 11
16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
  • If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
  • If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
  • If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
  • If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
  • If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
  • If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
17.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
  • 10.10.10.26
  • 127.0.0.1
  • 10.10.10.6
  • 10.10.10.1
  • 224.0.0.0
18.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
  • Replace S2 with a router.
  • Place all servers on S1.
  • Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
  • Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
  • Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.
19.
Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
  • 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
  • 10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
  • 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
  • 172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
  • 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
  • 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
  • require no device configuration
  • provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
  • require less processing power than static routes require
  • consume bandwidth to exchange route information
  • prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
  • A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
  • A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
  • A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
  • A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

ccna 1 module 4 exam answer

1. CCNA 1 Module 4 V4.0
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
**A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.**
**Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.**
The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.
2 After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
13
53
**80**
1024
1728
3 Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
sequencing
flow control
acknowledgments
**source and destination**
4 Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
acknowledgement of data delivery
**minimal delays in data delivery**
high reliability of data delivery
same order data delivery
5
CCNA 1 Module 4 V4.0
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
create a Layer 1 jam signal
**reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged**
send a RESET bit to the host
change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6
CCNA 1 Module 4 V4.0
Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
**session establishment**
segment retransmit
data transfer
session disconnect
7
CCNA 1 Module 4 V4.0
Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?
2
3
6
1850
**3431**
3475
8 Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
**to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data**
to synchronize window size on the server
to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
9 During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will not be
The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
**The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.**
The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
10 With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 255
256 to 1022
**0 to 1023**
1024 to 2047
49153 to 65535
11 Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
TCP
IP
**UDP**
HTTP
DNS
12 What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
flow control
**low overhead**
**connectionless**
connection-oriented
sequence and acknowledgements
13 What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
sequence numbers
session establishment
**window size**
acknowledgments
14 What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
destination logical address
source physical address
default gateway address
**source port**
15 Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
**to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application**
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
16 Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
identifies the destination network
identifies source and destination hosts
**identifies the communicating applications**
**identifies multiple conversations between the hosts**
identifies the devices communicating over the local media
17 Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
encapsulation
**flow control**
connectionless services
**session establishment**
**numbering and sequencing**
best effort delivery
18 Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
application
presentation
session
**transport**
network
19
CCNA 1 Module 4 V4.0
Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This is a UDP header.
**This contains a Telnet request.**
This contains a TFTP data transfer.
The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
**This is a TCP header.**
20 Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
The two applications exchange data.
**TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.**
UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
21
CCNA 1 Module 4 V4.0
Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host1.
**Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.

answer exam module 3 ccna 1

1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
• HTML
• HTTP
FTP
• Telnet

2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
applications
• dialogs
• requests
services
• syntax

3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
centralized administration
• does not require specialized software
security is easier to enforce
• lower cost implementation
• provides a single point of failure

4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
• temporarily holds resolved entries
used by the server to resolve names
• sent by the client to during a query
• passes authentication information between the server and client

5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
• HTTP
• SSH
• FQDN
DNS
• Telnet
• SMTP

6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• ARP
DNS
• PPP
SMTP
POP
• ICMP

7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
• requires centralized account administration.
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
can be used in client-server networks.
• requires a direct physical connection between devices.
• centralized authentication is required.

8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
• DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
• POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
• SMTP supports file sharing
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
• MDA
• IMAP
MTA
• POP
SMTP
• MUA

10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
• not widely available
does not support encryption
• consumes more network bandwidth
• does not support authentication

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
• routes email to the MDA on other servers
receives email from the client’s MUA
• receives email via the POP3 protocol
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers
• delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol

12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
• ASP
• FTP
HTML
HTTP
HTTPS
• IP

13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
• User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.
• Specialized operating system software is required.
• File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.

14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
• physical
• session
• network
• presentation
application
• transport

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80
• 1261
• 15533
• 3912
• 65520

16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
• scalable
• one way data flow
decentralized resources
• centralized user accounts
resource sharing without a dedicated server

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
• DHCP
• DNS
SMB
• SMTP
• Telnet

18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
• use daemons
• initiate data exchanges
• are repositories of data
may upload data to servers
• listen for requests from servers

19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
• provides segmentation of data
• provides encryption and conversion of data
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
• provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
• ceases all connections to the service
• denies multiple connections to a single daemon
• suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

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The best time to decide that a structured settlement is not right for you is before you consent to such a settlement. You may wish to press for a lump sum settlement, for periodic lump sum payments in addition to smaller annual payments, or for a lump sum to be issued at a future date when you anticipate a particular need. If you work out a settlement package that is in your best interest at the outset, you will be able to maximize the value of your settlement and get the greatest tax benefit from the structured portion of any settlement.

Remember that the companies which purchase structured settlements intend to profit from the purchase of your settlement. Their profit comes out of the payments you would otherwise receive.

Recall also that if your future earning capacity is impaired as a result of your injury, you should consider your future needs when you are making any decision regarding the sale of your settlement.


Exit Through the Gift Shop subtitles download .srt indonesia

english subtitle download .srt
The best time to decide that a structured settlement is not right for you is before you consent to such a settlement. You may wish to press for a lump sum settlement, for periodic lump sum payments in addition to smaller annual payments, or for a lump sum to be issued at a future date when you anticipate a particular need. If you work out a settlement package that is in your best interest at the outset, you will be able to maximize the value of your settlement and get the greatest tax benefit from the structured portion of any settlement.

Remember that the companies which purchase structured settlements intend to profit from the purchase of your settlement. Their profit comes out of the payments you would otherwise receive.

Recall also that if your future earning capacity is impaired as a result of your injury, you should consider your future needs when you are making any decision regarding the sale of your settlement.


Exit Through the Gift Shop Xvid/DivX Subtitle indonesia

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The best time to decide that a structured settlement is not right for you is before you consent to such a settlement. You may wish to press for a lump sum settlement, for periodic lump sum payments in addition to smaller annual payments, or for a lump sum to be issued at a future date when you anticipate a particular need. If you work out a settlement package that is in your best interest at the outset, you will be able to maximize the value of your settlement and get the greatest tax benefit from the structured portion of any settlement.

Remember that the companies which purchase structured settlements intend to profit from the purchase of your settlement. Their profit comes out of the payments you would otherwise receive.

Recall also that if your future earning capacity is impaired as a result of your injury, you should consider your future needs when you are making any decision regarding the sale of your settlement.


Exit Through the Gift Shop divx/xvid subtitle indonesia

english subtitle download .srt
The best time to decide that a structured settlement is not right for you is before you consent to such a settlement. You may wish to press for a lump sum settlement, for periodic lump sum payments in addition to smaller annual payments, or for a lump sum to be issued at a future date when you anticipate a particular need. If you work out a settlement package that is in your best interest at the outset, you will be able to maximize the value of your settlement and get the greatest tax benefit from the structured portion of any settlement.

Remember that the companies which purchase structured settlements intend to profit from the purchase of your settlement. Their profit comes out of the payments you would otherwise receive.

Recall also that if your future earning capacity is impaired as a result of your injury, you should consider your future needs when you are making any decision regarding the sale of your settlement.


Exit Through the Gift Shop DVD subtitle

english subtitle download .srt
The best time to decide that a structured settlement is not right for you is before you consent to such a settlement. You may wish to press for a lump sum settlement, for periodic lump sum payments in addition to smaller annual payments, or for a lump sum to be issued at a future date when you anticipate a particular need. If you work out a settlement package that is in your best interest at the outset, you will be able to maximize the value of your settlement and get the greatest tax benefit from the structured portion of any settlement.

Remember that the companies which purchase structured settlements intend to profit from the purchase of your settlement. Their profit comes out of the payments you would otherwise receive.

Recall also that if your future earning capacity is impaired as a result of your injury, you should consider your future needs when you are making any decision regarding the sale of your settlement.


Exit Through the Gift Shop subtitles download .srt

english subtitle download .srt
The best time to decide that a structured settlement is not right for you is before you consent to such a settlement. You may wish to press for a lump sum settlement, for periodic lump sum payments in addition to smaller annual payments, or for a lump sum to be issued at a future date when you anticipate a particular need. If you work out a settlement package that is in your best interest at the outset, you will be able to maximize the value of your settlement and get the greatest tax benefit from the structured portion of any settlement.

Remember that the companies which purchase structured settlements intend to profit from the purchase of your settlement. Their profit comes out of the payments you would otherwise receive.

Recall also that if your future earning capacity is impaired as a result of your injury, you should consider your future needs when you are making any decision regarding the sale of your settlement.


Exit Through the Gift Shop Xvid/DivX Subtitle

english subtitle download .srt
The best time to decide that a structured settlement is not right for you is before you consent to such a settlement. You may wish to press for a lump sum settlement, for periodic lump sum payments in addition to smaller annual payments, or for a lump sum to be issued at a future date when you anticipate a particular need. If you work out a settlement package that is in your best interest at the outset, you will be able to maximize the value of your settlement and get the greatest tax benefit from the structured portion of any settlement.

Remember that the companies which purchase structured settlements intend to profit from the purchase of your settlement. Their profit comes out of the payments you would otherwise receive.

Recall also that if your future earning capacity is impaired as a result of your injury, you should consider your future needs when you are making any decision regarding the sale of your settlement.


Exit Through the Gift Shop divx/xvid subtitle

english subtitle download .srt
The best time to decide that a structured settlement is not right for you is before you consent to such a settlement. You may wish to press for a lump sum settlement, for periodic lump sum payments in addition to smaller annual payments, or for a lump sum to be issued at a future date when you anticipate a particular need. If you work out a settlement package that is in your best interest at the outset, you will be able to maximize the value of your settlement and get the greatest tax benefit from the structured portion of any settlement.

Remember that the companies which purchase structured settlements intend to profit from the purchase of your settlement. Their profit comes out of the payments you would otherwise receive.

Recall also that if your future earning capacity is impaired as a result of your injury, you should consider your future needs when you are making any decision regarding the sale of your settlement.


 
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